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NEW QUESTION: 1
A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes.
How is this accomplished?
A. Edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
B. Right-click SQL001 and select Move
C. Right-click SQL001 and select Change
D. Expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 2
A borrower pays a floating rate on a loan and wishes to convert it to a position where a fixed rate is paid.
Which of the following can be used to accomplish this objective?
I. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN
II. An long position in an interest rate collar and long an FRN
III. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN IV. An interest rate swap where the investor pays the fixed rate
A. I, II and IV
B. II and III
C. None of the above
D. I and IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN has the effect of paying fixed and receiving floating. The floating received offsets the floating payment on the borrowing, leaving the borrower with just a fixed rate outflow. Therefore the combination identified in statement I can be used to achieve the objective of paying fixed.
A collar is equivalent to a long position in an interest rate cap combined with a short position in an interest rate floor. This has the effect of setting a range within which the investor's borrowing rate will vary. In the case where the cap and floor rates are the same, the combination of a collar and a long FRN effectively produces an outcome where the holder of such positions pays a fixed rate. Therefore, an interest rate collar can be used to convert the fixed payment to a floating rate payment. [Example: Assume current interest rate is 3%, and therefore the borrower has a liability of 3% on the FRN. Assume that the borrower now buys a collar at the strike rate of 4%. Now the borrower receives 0% (=Max(3 % - 4%, 0)) on the cap part of the collar, and pays 1% on the floor part of the collar (=Max(4% - 3%, 0)). The net borrowing cost therefore is 3% paid on the FRN plus 1% paid on the collar, equal to 4%. Now if interest rates rise to say 6%, the borrower pays 6% on the FRN, and receives 2% from the collar (=Max(6% - 4%, 0) - Max(4% - 6%, 0)), creating a net cost of 6% - 2% = 4%.
A collar is often issued with an FRN to convert floating flows to fixed. Therefore combination II is an acceptable choice.
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN produces a cash flow that does not produce a net fixed cash outflow when combined with the borrowing. Therefore statement III is not a valid combination.
An interest rate swap where the investor pays fixed and receives floating, when combined with a floating payment on an FRN leaves a net fixed payment, Therefore statement IV is a valid way to achieve the borrower's objective.
NEW QUESTION: 3
Which statement is true regarding STP?
A. The path between the source and the destination end stations is always ideal with the default spanning-tree parameter.
B. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the lowest MAC address; the lowest MAC address will become the root port during the election.
C. When the spanning-tree topology is calculated based on default parameters, the path
between the source and destination end stations in a switched network might not be ideal.
D. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the speed of the link; the slowest link speed will become the root port during the election.
Answer: C
