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NEW QUESTION: 1
A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes.
How is this accomplished?
A. Expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
B. Right-click SQL001 and select Change
C. Right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. Edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 2
A borrower pays a floating rate on a loan and wishes to convert it to a position where a fixed rate is paid.
Which of the following can be used to accomplish this objective?
I. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN
II. An long position in an interest rate collar and long an FRN
III. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN IV. An interest rate swap where the investor pays the fixed rate
A. II and III
B. I and IV
C. None of the above
D. I, II and IV
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN has the effect of paying fixed and receiving floating. The floating received offsets the floating payment on the borrowing, leaving the borrower with just a fixed rate outflow. Therefore the combination identified in statement I can be used to achieve the objective of paying fixed.
A collar is equivalent to a long position in an interest rate cap combined with a short position in an interest rate floor. This has the effect of setting a range within which the investor's borrowing rate will vary. In the case where the cap and floor rates are the same, the combination of a collar and a long FRN effectively produces an outcome where the holder of such positions pays a fixed rate. Therefore, an interest rate collar can be used to convert the fixed payment to a floating rate payment. [Example: Assume current interest rate is 3%, and therefore the borrower has a liability of 3% on the FRN. Assume that the borrower now buys a collar at the strike rate of 4%. Now the borrower receives 0% (=Max(3 % - 4%, 0)) on the cap part of the collar, and pays 1% on the floor part of the collar (=Max(4% - 3%, 0)). The net borrowing cost therefore is 3% paid on the FRN plus 1% paid on the collar, equal to 4%. Now if interest rates rise to say 6%, the borrower pays 6% on the FRN, and receives 2% from the collar (=Max(6% - 4%, 0) - Max(4% - 6%, 0)), creating a net cost of 6% - 2% = 4%.
A collar is often issued with an FRN to convert floating flows to fixed. Therefore combination II is an acceptable choice.
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN produces a cash flow that does not produce a net fixed cash outflow when combined with the borrowing. Therefore statement III is not a valid combination.
An interest rate swap where the investor pays fixed and receives floating, when combined with a floating payment on an FRN leaves a net fixed payment, Therefore statement IV is a valid way to achieve the borrower's objective.
NEW QUESTION: 3
Which statement is true regarding STP?
A. The path between the source and the destination end stations is always ideal with the default spanning-tree parameter.
B. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the lowest MAC address; the lowest MAC address will become the root port during the election.
C. When the spanning-tree topology is calculated based on default parameters, the path
between the source and destination end stations in a switched network might not be ideal.
D. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the speed of the link; the slowest link speed will become the root port during the election.
Answer: C
